00 Paper-I Teaching and Research Aptitude

SUBJECT 00 : GENERAL PAPER ON TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE

The main objective is to assess the teaching and research capabilities of the candidates. Therefore, the test is aimed at assessing the teaching and general/research aptitude as well as their awareness. They are expected to possess and exhibit cognitive abilities. Cognitive abilities include comprehension, analysis, evaluation, understanding the structure of arguments and deductive and inductive reasoning. The candidates are also expected to have a general awareness and knowledge of sources of information. They should be aware of interaction between people, environment and natural resources and their impact on quality of life. The details are given in the following sections:

NOTE : UGC has decided to provide internal choice questions to the candidates from December 2009 onwards. Sixty (60) multiple choice questions of two marks each will be given, out of which candidates would be required to answer any fifty (50). In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated.


1. Teaching Aptitude

Teaching : Nature, objectives, characteristics and basic requirements;
Learner’s characteristics;
Factors affecting teaching;
Methods Teaching
Teaching aids;
Evaluation systems.

II. Research Aptitude

Research : Meaning, characteristics and types;
Steps of research;
Methods of research;
Research Ethics;
Paper, article, workshop, seminar, conference and symposium;
Thesis writing: its characteristics and format.

III. Reading Comprehension

A passage to be set with questions to be answered.

IV. Communication

Communication : Nature, characteristics, types, barriers and effective classroom communication.

V. Reasoning (Including Mathematical)

Number series; letter series; codes;
Relationships; classification.

VI. Logical Reasoning

Understanding the structure of arguments;
Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning;
Verbal analogies : Word analogy —- Applied analogy;
Verbal classification;
Reasoning Logical Diagrams : Simple diagrammatic relationship, multi-diagrammatic relationship;
Venn diagram; Analytical Reasoning.

VII. Data Integration

Sources, acquisition and interpretation of data;.
Quantitative and qualitative data;
Graphical representation and mapping of data.

VIII. Information and Communication Technology (ICT)

ICT : meaning, advantages, disadvantages and uses;
General abbreviations and terminology;
Basics of internet and e-mailing.

IX. People and Environment

People and environment interaction;
Sources of pollution;
Pollutants and their impact on human life, exploitation of natural and energy resources;
Natural hazards and mitigation

X. Higher Education System : Governance, Polity And Administration

Structure of the institutions for higher learning and research in India; formal and distance education; professional/technical and general education; value education: governance, polity and administration; concept, institutions and their interactions.

SC00 UGC NETJRF Question Paper -1 Teaching and Research Aptitude December 2012

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Instructions: 

This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions.

In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.

 If you are rather interested in taking a free online test for this question set and know your performance, CLICK in the right hand panel to go for an Online Practice Test on this Question Set.

 

1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words

(A) Communis and Communicare

(B) Communist and Commune

(C) Communism and Communalism

(D) Communion and Common sense

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as

(A) Mass line communication

(B) Group communication

(C) Participatory communication

(D) Dialogue communication

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as

(A) Transpersonal communication

(B) Intrapersonal communication

(C) Interpersonal communication

(D) Face-to-face communication

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is

(A) The Times of India

(B) The Indian Express

(C) The Hindu

(D) The Deccan Herald

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was

(A) K.A. Abbas

(B) Satyajit Ray

(C) B.R. Chopra

(D) Dada Sahib Phalke

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation

7. The missing number in the series :

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is

(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is

$1(A)80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is

(A) 4 (B) 15/2

(C) 15/4 (D) 6

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by

(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR

(C) MASRL (D) SAMLR

11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are

(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15

(C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10

12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (x), C means divided by

(/) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is

(A) 8 (B) 10

(C) 12 (D) 14

13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion– II and select the right code given below :

Assertion–I : Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves can not go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.

Assertion–II : The difference of skincolour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.

Codes :

(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.

(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.

(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.

(D) Both the assertions areexplanations of facts.

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?

(A) All men are honest.

(B) Some men are honest.

(C) No men are honest.

(D) All of the above.

15. A stipulative definition is

(A) always true

(B) always false

(C) sometimes true sometimes false

(D) neither true nor false

16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.

Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor – ?

(A) Customer (B) Path-finder

(C) Perceiver (D) Disciple

17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true ?

I. All obedient persons are students.

II. All students are obedient.

III. Some students are obedient.

IV. Some students are not disobedient.

Codes :

(A) I & II (B) II & III

(C) III & IV (D) II & IV

18. Choose the right code :

A deductive argument claims that :

I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.

II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.

III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.

IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must betrue.

Codes :

(A) I and II (B) I and III

(C) II and III (D) All the above

On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :

Government Expenditures on Social Services

(As percent of total expenditure)

Sl.

No.

Items

2007-08

2008-09

2009-10

 

Social Services

11.06

12.94

13.06

14.02

(a)

Education, Sports & Youth Affairs

4.02

4.04

3.96

4.46

(b)

Health &Family Welfare

2.05

1.91

1.9

2.03

(c)

Water Supply and Housing Etc,

2.02

2.31

2.2

2.27

(d)

Information & Broadcasting

0.22

0.22

0.2

0.22

(e)

Welfare to SC/ST

0.36

0.35

0.41

0.63

(f)

Labour and Employment

0.27

0.27

0.22

0.25

(g)

Social Welfare and Nutrition

0.82

0.72

0.79

1.06

(h)

North-eastern Areas

0

1.56

1.5

1.75

(i)

Other Social Services

1.29

1.55

1.87

1.34

Total

Government Expenditures

100

100

100

100

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than 5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09 ?

(A) One (B) Three

(C) Five (D) All the above

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate ?

(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09

(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures ?

(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC

(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition

22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years ?

(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC

(C) Labour and employment (D) Social welfare & nutrition

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11 ?

(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC

(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall social services

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10 ?

(A) Labour and employment (B) Health & family welfare

(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs

25. ALU stands for

(A) American Logic Unit

(B) Alternate Local Unit

(C) Alternating Logic Unit

(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit

26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called

(A) Microprocessor

(B) System Board

(C) Daughter Board

(D) Mother Board

27. Computer Virus is a

(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria

(C) Software (D) None of these

28. Which one of the following is correct ?

(A) (17)10 = (17)16

(B) (17)10 = (17)8

(C) (17)10 = (10111)2

(D) (17)10 = (10001)2

29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.

(A) .pdf (B) .doc

(C) .docx (D) .txt

30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.

(A) TCP (B) FTP

(C) SMTP (D) POP

31. Which of the following is a source of methane ?

(A) Wetlands

(B) Foam Industry

(C) Thermal Power Plants

(D) Cement Industry

32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to

(A) Lead (B) Mercury

(C) Cadmium (D) Zinc

33. Biomagnification means increase in the

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms

(B) number of species

(C) size of living organisms

(D) biomass

34. Nagoya Protocol is related to

(A) Climate change

(B) Ozone depletion

(C) Hazardous waste

(D) Biodiversity

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is

(A) Solar energy

(B) Nuclear energy

(C) Hydropower

(D) Wind energy

36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies

(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.

(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.

(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.

(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index ?

(A) Literacy Rate

(B) Gross Enrolment

(C) Sex Ratio

(D) Life Expectancy

38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after

(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.

(C) Australia (D) Canada

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?

1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.

2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.

3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

4. He has a fixed tenure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only

40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?

1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim

3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency ?

1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.

2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.

3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.

4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I

(a) Poverty Reduction Programme

 (b) Human Development Scheme

 (c) Social Assistance Scheme

 (d) Minimum Need Scheme

List – II

(i) Mid-day Meals

 (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)

 (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)

 (iv) MNREGA

Codes :

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have

(A) ability to learn only

(B) requisite level of motivation only

(C) opportunities to learn only

(D) desired level of ability and motivation

44. Classroom communication must be

(A) Teacher centric

(B) Student centric

(C) General centric

(D) Textbook centric

45. The best method of teaching is to

(A) impart information

(B) ask students to read books

(C) suggest good reference material

(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it

46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate

(A) Argument

(B) Information

(C) Ideas

(D) Controversy

47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that

(A) punishment in the class should be banned.

(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.

(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.

(D) children should be beaten with rods.

48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as

(A) Interpersonal

(B) Mass communication

(C) Group communication

(D) Face-to-face communication

49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal ?

(A) Impact factor

(B) h-index

(C) g-index

(D) i10-index

50. Good ‘research ethics’ means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.

(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.

(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.

(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

(A) Convenience sampling

(B) Quota sampling

(C) Judgement sampling

(D) Stratified sampling

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format ?

(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :

1. Identification of research problem

2. Listing of research objectives

3. Collection of data

4. Methodology

5. Data analysis

6. Results and discussion

(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6

(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6

(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

54. Identify the incorrect statement :

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further  investigations.

(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.

(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.

(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :

The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.

In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is

(A) Positive (B) Negative

(C) Neutral (D) Unspecified

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to

(A) 30 million (B) 40 million

(C) 50 million (D) 60 million

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.

(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.

(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.

(D) How fast the environment has degraded.

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life ?

(A) Tempo of urbanization (B) Provision of basic services

(C) Access to social amenities (D) All the above

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge

(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness

(C) Analytical Reasoning

(D) Descriptive Statement

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life (B) The sufferings of the urban life

(C) The awareness of human progress (D) The limits to growth

 

SC00 UGC NETJRF Question Paper -1 Teaching and Research Aptitude June 2012

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TEST BOOKLET CODE: W

Instructions: This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.

 

 

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as  one of the following types of  communication :

 

 (A) Visual one way

 

 (B) Audio-Visual one way

 

 (C) Audio-Visual two way

 

 (D) Visual two way

 

 

 

2. MC National University of Journalism  and Communication is located at

 

 (A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal

 

 (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai

 

 

 

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for  broadcasting was named in the year

 

 (A) 1926 (B) 1936

 

 (C) 1946 (D) 1956

 

 

 

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ?

 

 (A) NTCS (B) PAL

 

 (C) NTSE (D) SECAM

 

 

 

5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for

 

 (A) Directorate of Advertising &  Vocal Publicity

 

 (B) Division of Audio-Visual  Publicity

 

 (C) Department of Audio-Visual  Publicity

 

 (D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

 

 

 

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for

 

 (A) Total Rating Points

 

 (B) Time Rating Points

 

 (C) Thematic Rating Points

 

 (D) Television Rating Points

 

 

 

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence ?

 

 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____

 

 (A) 60 (B) 64

 

 (C) 72 (D) 70

 

 

 

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………

 

 (A) N (B) M

 

 (C) O (D) L

 

 

 

9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents  ‘sunny’ ?

 

 (A) 3 (B) 2

 

 (C) 4 (D) 5

 

 

 

10. The basis of the following classification is :  ‘first President of India’ ‘author of Godan’ ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’

 

 (A) Common names

 

 (B) Proper names

 

 (C) Descriptive phrases

 

 (D) Indefinite description

 

 

 

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is

 

 (A) antisymmetric

 

 (B) asymmetrical

 

 (C) intransitive

 

 (D) irreflexive

 

 

 

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.

 

Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.

 

Choose the correct answer from below :

 

 (A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

 

 (B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

 

 (C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

 

 (D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

 

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :

 

 1. “All men are mortal” is true.

 

 2. “Some men are mortal” is false.

 

 3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.

 

 4. “All men are mortal” is false.

 

Code :

 

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

 

 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3

 

 

 

14. Determine the nature of the following

 

definition :  “Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.

 

 (A) Lexical (B) Persuasive

 

 (C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical

 

15. Which one of the following is not an argument ?

 

 (A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.

 

 (B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.

 

 (C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.

 

 (D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.

 

 

 

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

 

 (A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

 

 (B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

 

 (C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

 

 (D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

 

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to

 

 (A) certainty

 

 (B) definite conclusion

 

 (C) predictive conjecture

 

 (D) surety

 

 

 

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below :

 

 1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.

 

 2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.

 

 3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.

 

 4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.

 

Code :

 

(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3

 

 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2

 

 

 

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ?

 

 (A) B (B) C

 

 (C) D (D) E

 

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?

 

 (A) 20% (B) 25%

 

 (C) 30% (D) 33.33%

 

 

 

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer  greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5  and less than 10, then they may  correctly conclude that

 

 (A) y can be exactly determined

 

 (B) y may be either of two values

 

 (C) y may be any of three values

 

 (D) there is no value of y satisfying  these conditions

 

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?

 

 (A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon

 

 (C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM

 

The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below ;

2012June

23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?

 

 (A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW

 

 (C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW

 

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the  electricity generation ?

 

 (A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW

 

 (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW

 

For Blind Students Only

 

(Questions 23 – 24)

 

23. In a normally distributed data set, what percentage of data points lie between mean + 2 * standard deviation ?

 

 (A) ~ 95% (B) ~ 68%

 

 (C) ~ 50% (D) ~ 37%

 

 

 

24. 10 is the mean of a set of 7 observations and 5 is the mean of a set of 3 observations. The mean of the combined set is given by

 

 (A) 7.5 (B) 8.5

 

 (C) 10 (D) 15

 

 

 

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the

 

 (A) Phone lines

 

 (B) LAN

 

 (C) Internet

 

 (D) a Server

 

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for

 

 (A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange

 

 (B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

 

 (C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange

 

 (D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

 

 

 

27. Which of the following is not a programming language ?

 

 (A) Pascal

 

 (B) Microsoft Office

 

 (C) Java

 

 (D) C++

 

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to

 

 (A) 3

 

 (B) 5

 

 (C) 8

 

 (D) 10

 

29. Internet explorer is a type of

 

 (A) Operating System

 

 (B) Compiler

 

 (C) Browser

 

 (D) IP address

 

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

 

 (A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday

 

 (B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail

 

 (C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email

 

 (D) One does not need any telephone lines

 

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant

 

 (A) Sulphur di-oxide

 

 (B) Ozone

 

 (C) PAN

 

 (D) Nitrous oxide

 

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?

 

 (A) Thermal power plants

 

 (B) Automobiles

 

 (C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning

 

 (D) Fertilizers

 

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?

 

 (A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil

 

 (C) Fresh water (D) Salt

 

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water ?

 

 (A) Total dissolved solids

 

 (B) Coliform count

 

 (C) Dissolved oxygen

 

 (D) Density

 

35. S and P waves are associated with

 

 (A) floods

 

 (B) wind energy

 

 (C) earthquakes

 

 (D) tidal energy

 

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

 

List – I (i) Ozone hole (ii) Greenhouse effect (iii) Natural hazards (iv) Sustainable development

 

List – II  (a) Tsunami  (b) UV radiations (c) Methane   (d) Eco-centrism

 

Codes :

 

 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

 

 (A) (b) (c) (a) (d)

 

 (B) (c) (b) (a) (d)

 

 (C) (d) (c) (a) (b)

 

 (D) (d) (b) (c) (a)

 

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at

 

 (A) Dharmshala

 

 (B) Shimla

 

 (C) Solan

 

 (D) Chandigarh

 

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.

 

 (A) 04

 

 (B) 05

 

 (C) 06

 

 (D) 08

 

39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?

 

 (A) Freedom of Speech

 

 (B) Right to Equality

 

 (C) Right to Freedom of Religion

 

 (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

 

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?

 

 (A) Lord Cornwallis

 

 (B) Warren Hastings

 

 (C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation

 

 (D) Sir Charles Metcalfe

 

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

 

 1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem

 

 2. To develop the scientific temper.

 

 3. Respect for the Government.

 

 4. To protect Wildlife.

 

 Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

 

Codes :

 

(A) 1, 2 and 3

 

 (B) 1, 2 and 4

 

 (C) 2, 3 and 4

 

 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

 

42. The President of India takes oath

 

 (A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.

 

 (B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.

 

 (C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.

 

 (D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.

 

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?

 

 (A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.

 

 (B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.

 

 (C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.

 

 (D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.

 

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?

 

 (A) Reliability (B) Objectivity

 

 (C) Ambiguity (D) Validity

 

 

 

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?

 

 (A) Overhead projector

 

 (B) Blackboard

 

 (C) Epidiascope

 

 (D) Slide projector

 

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard ?

 

 (A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.

 

 (B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.

 

 (C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.

 

 (D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.

 

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she  

 

(A) helps students in becoming better citizens

 

 (B) imparts subject knowledge to students

 

 (C) prepares students to pass the examination

 

 (D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner

 

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means

 

 (A) Teaching should be forceful and effective

 

 (B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic

 

 (C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic

 

 (D) The students should be required to learn through activities

 

49. The research that aims at immediate application is

 

 (A) Action Research

 

 (B) Empirical Research

 

 (C) Conceptual Research

 

 (D) Fundamental Research

 

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used ?

 

 (A) ibid (B) et.al

 

 (C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.

 

51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from

 

 (A) Vertical study

 

 (B) Cross-sectional study

 

 (C) Time series study

 

 (D) Experimental study

 

52. Conferences are meant for

 

 (A) Multiple target groups

 

 (B) Group discussions

 

 (C) Show-casing new Research

 

 (D) All the above

 

53. Ex Post Facto research means

 

 (A) The research is carried out after the incident

 

 (B) The research is carried out prior to the incident

 

 (C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.

 

 (D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.

 

54. Research ethics do not include

 

 (A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity

 

 (C) Integrity (D) Objectivity

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

 

 James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves  with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient  smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”

 

 The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in  Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny,  Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700  crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

 

55. A person gets power

 

 (A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923

 

 (C) through openings (D) by denying public information

 

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to

 

 (A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process

 

 (B) to make the people aware of the Act

 

 (C) to gain knowledge of administration

 

 (D) to make the people Government friendly

 

 

 

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill

 

 (A) to provide power to the civil servants

 

 (B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government

 

 (C) a draconian law against the officials

 

 (D) to check the harassment of the people

 

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by

 

 (A) extending power to the executive authorities

 

 (B) combining the executive and legislative power

 

 (C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit

 

 (D) educating the people before its implementation

 

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that

 

 (A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.

 

 (B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.

 

 (C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government

 

 (D) All the above

 

 

 

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.  These three organs are

 

 (A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary

 

 (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive

 

 (C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission

 

 (D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

 

SC00 UGC NETJRF Question Paper -1 Teaching and Research Aptitude September 2013

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Instructions: 

This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions.

In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.

 If you are rather interested in taking a free online test for this question set and know your performance, CLICK in the right hand panel to go for an Online Practice Test on this Question Set.

 

1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have  increased by a factor 16 ?

(A) ~ 80 years (B) ~ 40 years

(C) ~ 160 years (D) ~ 320 years

2. Telephone is an example of

(A) linear communication

(B) non-linear communication

(C) circular

(D) mechanised

3. Means of grapevine communication are

(A) formal (B) informal

(C) critical (D) corporate

4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by

(A) ILO (B) ITU

(C) UNDP (D) UNESCO

5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with

(A) reality (B) falsity

(C) negativity (D) passivity

6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as

(A) non-pervasive treasure

(B) limited judgement

(C) autonomous virtue

(D) cultural capital

7. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective (B) affective

(C) cognitive (D) non-selective

8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is

(A) 18 (B) 19

(C) 20 (D) 21

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is

(A) 38 (B) 42

(C) 52 (D) 24

10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is

(A) C (B) D

(C) A (D) F

11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is

(A) 238 (B) 432

(C) 542 (D) 320

12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid 204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is

(A) 236 (B) 240

(C) 248 (D) 256

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be

(A) QRUWK (B) RQWUK

(C) RWQUK (D) RWUKQ

14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?

(A) Yadav (B) Arjun

(C) Rajesh (D) Kamal

15. A deductive argument can not be valid :

(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.

(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.

(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.

(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.

16. An analogical argument is strengthened by

(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.

(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.

(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.

(D) None of the above.

17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?

(A) Contrary

(B) Sub-contrary

(C) Sub-alternation

(D) Contradictory

18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.

(A) Garments, cloth and shirts

(B) Cloth, garments and shirts

(C) Shirts, garments and cloth

(D) Garments, shirts and cloth

19. What is equivalent of the statement All atheists are pessimists ?

(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.

(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.

(C) All pessimists are atheists.

(D) None of the above.

In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)

 

Year

Coal

Petroleum

Gas

Electricity

Total

2006-07

7459

1423

1223

4763

14,868

2007-08

7926

1429

1248

4944

15,547

2008-09

8476

1403

1265

5133

16,277

2009-10

9137

1411

1830

4511

16,889

2010-11

9207

1579

2012

5059

17,857

20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?

(A) 2007–08 (B) 2008–09

(C) 2009–10 (D) 2010–11

21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity

(D) Total production of energy

22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(C) Natural gas

(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity

23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?

(A) 2006–07 (B) 2007–08

(C) 2008–09 (D) 2009–10

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called

(A) net protocol (B) netiquette

(C) net ethics (D) net morality

25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as

(A) Net ads

(B) Internet commercials

(C) Webmercials

(D) Viral advertisements

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term

(A) Internet society

(B) Electronic society

(C) Network society

(D) Telematic society

27. GIF stands for

(A) Global Information Format

(B) Graphics Information Format

(C) Graphics Interchange File

(D) Graphics Interchange Format

28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?

(A) IBM AIX

(B) Linux

(C) Sun Solaris

(D) Firefox

29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?

1. Punjabi University, Patiala

2. Osmania University, Hyderabad

3. Kashmir University, Srinagar

4. St. Stephens College, Delhi

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4

(C) 2 only (D) 4 only

30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?

1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.

2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.

4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?

1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.

2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.

4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4

32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?

(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram

(B) Assam and Nagaland

(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam

(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?

1. Birth

2. Descent

3. Naturalisation

4. Incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?

1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.

2. It serves as an advisory body.

3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.

4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :

I had occasion to work with her closely during the Womens International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and womens organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited. In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Alis health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes –action for womens advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.

35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?

(A) Womens International Years Committee

(B) Steering Committee of Womens International Year

(C) A Committee of Publicity

(D) Womens Organizations

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ? Choose the answer from codes given below :

(i) Representatives from different political parties.

(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.

(iii) Representatives from the womens organizations.

(iv) None of the above.

Codes :

(A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv)

37. Aruna earned respect because of

(A) she identified with the leftists

(B) she did not associate with any political party

(C) chairing a Steering Committee

(D) she identified with womens organizations

38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right?

(A) Women Organizations (B) Leftists

(C) Steering Committee (D) Some Political Parties

39. Arunas health began to deteriorate from

(A) 1985 – 2002 (B) 1998 – 2000

(C) 1981 – 2000 (D) 1989 – 2001

40. Arunas pet cause(s) in her life was/ were

(A) Role of media (B) Economic justice

(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs (D) All the above

41. A good teacher must be

(A) resourceful and autocratic

(B) resourceful and participative

(C) resourceful and authoritative

(D) resourceful and dominant

42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?

(A) Lecture method

(B) Discussion method

(C) Demonstration method

(D) Question-Answer method

43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is

(A) Circular

(B) Reciprocal

(C) Directional

(D) Influential

44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction?

(A) Placement evaluation

(B) Formative evaluation

(C) Diagnostic evaluation

(D) Summative

45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?

(A) Macro teaching

(B) Team teaching

(C) Cooperative teaching

(D) Micro teaching

46. CLASS stands for

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools

(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools

(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools

(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools

47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?

(A) Single group experiment

(B) Residual group experiment

(C) Parallel group experiment

(D) Rational group experiment

48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?

(A) t-test

(B) Sign test

(C) Chi-square test

(D) Run test

49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.

Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.

Find the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :

(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings

(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings

(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings

(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection

51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in

(A) Basic Science

(B) Applied Science

(C) Social Science

(D) Literature

52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?

(A) Univariate analysis

(B) Factor analysis

(C) Case studies

(D) SWOT analysis

53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as

(A) antecedent variable

(B) precedent variable

(C) predictor variable

(D) control variable

54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Cluster Sampling

(D) Quota Sampling

55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing

(A) 20,000 MW of wind power

(B) 25,000 MW of wind power

(C) 20,000 MW of solar power

(D) 10,000 MW of solar power

56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?

(A) Manas

(B) Kanchenjunga

(C) Seshachalam Hills

(D) Greater Nicobar

57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?

(A) Agriculture

(B) Hydroelectric power generation

(C) Industry

(D) Urbanisation

58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I

(Biosphere Reserve)

a. Nilgiri

b. Manas

c. Similipal

d. Achankmar- Amarkantak

List – II

(Area of Location)

i. Deccan Peninsula

ii. Chhattisgarh

iii. Eastern Himalaya

iv. Western Ghat

Codes :

 a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) iv iii i ii

59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?

(A) Mexico (B) Brazil

(C) China (D) Korea

60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide ?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(C) USA

(D) India

 

 

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